1/2 + 1/6 + 1/24 ... + 0 ~= 1
It's approximately 1, IIRC.
[edit]
Take the limit.
You've misrepresented the series. The numerator is a variable. And "take the limit" isn't really helpful.
Prove that the series of n / (n + 1)! from n = 1 to infinity converges to 1.
Proof:
We are going to prove that the series converges to 1 by mathematical induction. Let S(n) be the nth partial sum of the series.
Assume that S(n) = [(n+1)! - 1] / (n + 1)!. Then S(n+1) = [(n+1)! - 1] / (n + 1)! + (n+1) / (n+2)!. Multiply the lefthand term by (n + 2) / (n + 2) to get a common denominator. Simplifying, you get S(n+1) = [(n+2)! - 1] / (n+2)!. Therefore, if S(n) is true for some n, then it is true for n + 1.
We now consider the anchor case, n = 1. S(1) = [(1 + 1)! - 1] / 2 = 1/2.
Therefore, S(n) is true for all n, as proved by induction.
Now consider the limit of S(n) as n goes to infinity. lim S(n) as n->infinity = 1. Therefore the partial sum converges to 1.